Well, I want to know how they accounted for it in the testing. It's a gender-blind test... so my question becomes "Does it favour men or women?" or have they just made it so 100% is damn near impossible based on a single person's socialization?
Well... I would say 77% is a decent mark, and I tended to answer 1) as gender neutral as possible, followed by 2) from the male perspective (under the assumption that they must have polled Executive class people to get their input, and most of them are still men).
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